Hey MCM,
I had this conversation with a friend on this and thought I would get some thoughts on this hypothetical idea. I'll give the three examples that were being debated on if they are gambling or not.
1. 5 dollar bet that the broncos will win (both people have to pay up if they lose)
2. Betting someone 10 dollars that they won't finish a milkshake (if they don't finish the shake, there is no money or item that is owed to the person who made the bet)
3. Paying someone in exchange for a Minecraft skin
We both said that option one was gambling. My friend said that 2 was and 3 was not because of the word "bet" and that there is something that is being risked that is a "game". But I argued it must be both that are or are not gambling. My logic was that with gambling, there must be something that is lost if they lose for both sides, which 2 does not have. But I argued it could be that both were gambling, because the definition is "
take risky action in the hope of a desired result." In theory both qualify, for 2 it is taking a risky action of putting up 10 dollars, with the desired result of them finishing the shake. It also works for 3 as they put up the skin, with the desired result to gain money. Anyway I just wanted to get some outside thoughts on the logic provided, or maybe a new perspective I didn't think of.
I had this conversation with a friend on this and thought I would get some thoughts on this hypothetical idea. I'll give the three examples that were being debated on if they are gambling or not.
1. 5 dollar bet that the broncos will win (both people have to pay up if they lose)
2. Betting someone 10 dollars that they won't finish a milkshake (if they don't finish the shake, there is no money or item that is owed to the person who made the bet)
3. Paying someone in exchange for a Minecraft skin
We both said that option one was gambling. My friend said that 2 was and 3 was not because of the word "bet" and that there is something that is being risked that is a "game". But I argued it must be both that are or are not gambling. My logic was that with gambling, there must be something that is lost if they lose for both sides, which 2 does not have. But I argued it could be that both were gambling, because the definition is "
take risky action in the hope of a desired result." In theory both qualify, for 2 it is taking a risky action of putting up 10 dollars, with the desired result of them finishing the shake. It also works for 3 as they put up the skin, with the desired result to gain money. Anyway I just wanted to get some outside thoughts on the logic provided, or maybe a new perspective I didn't think of.
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